Is it possible that popular thought concerning the construct of ancient literature consisted of the concept of written language as being a profane version of a sacred reality? And that it was often accepted that it would of necessity employ the allegorical method of the absurd in order to express what was seen as abstract spiritual truths?

amy, I hope you are not taken back by Aha's query here. I bumped into this one on another forum and told Aha, if he wanted any input from the profane and mundane he needs to re-phrase the topic. Otherwise it will be just Aha and I to keep you company here. I jumped if äcuz I noticed Aha was all alone, and I don't want to deprive Aha of a chance to make our day.

I will be back with some penetrating queries of my own to get your feedback, once Aha does his re-phrase thing so we can attract some more folk to liven things up. This can be an interesting thread once I get my mojo working again.

lol, jake i don't think i have the energy to rephrase this question again, maybe i should just let it die, hehe. I was in hopes that the Dr.'s would understand what i was asking. To me it's just a simple question about how ancient people may have viewed the "written word." And what was deemed acceptable practise in the construction of ancient literature, especially concerning dealing with concepts with deep philisophical ramifications?????

aha, I had high hopes you would razzle-dazzle me with your usual brilliance, but Amy will need to have some meat on a bone to chomp on, just like follow on posters will need, otherwise my dollar bill analogy will not make any sense. You did quite a good job with the re-phrase you did on the other forum, remember the poor dude who dropped and out in the same sentence? I don't want you to feel like the sound of one hand clapping if nobody joins the fray.