I'm trying to understand how the Acts of Phillip could get Mariamne's name right, but if she died in Jerusalem and was buried in the Talpiot tomb, with Mariamne inscribed on it, why wouldn't the canonical gospel writers refer to her by that name? And is there any reference to Mary Magdalene as Mariamne earlier than the Acts of Philip? Thanks
I'm curious about a couple of things, I can understand the Mariamne thing in that she traveled according to this writing into France.
If the Gnostic gospel of Phillip stands to be valid, and we know the other Gospels have been tampered with then we can maybe find more truths to coroborate facts and events.
While I found the questions in this post interesting, I'm surprised at the comment of the moderator.
I think the answer was obvious and I didn't want to answer the person's question due to the nature of the forum set up to allow the good Dr. to take the initiative.
Since the question may have been rebuffed and not brought to the attention of the good Dr. I'd like to answer the original question.
Johninsouthflorida;
The Gnostics that protected the lineage in Jerusalem, kept the secret of the spelling of the name Mariamne, this was a special name given to her either by Jesus or by the Gnostics following the teachings of Jesus.
Why was Jesus always renaming people?
I have difficulty in knowing words and people by one name or definition. The more names you use to describe a person or word the harder it is to talk to others in a way that they fully understand.